? about Zecharias

Discussion in 'Christian Issues' started by Lisa, Mar 21, 2008.

  1. Lisa

    Lisa New Member

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    One of the scriptures quoted in the other thread made me remember this question I had the other day.

    In Mat. 23:35 Jesus said ".... unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom ye slew between the temple and the alter".
    Now in 2 Chron. 24:20 which this is referencing (right?) it says "The Spirit of God came upon Zachariah the son of Jehoiada ...." And verse 21 they "....stoned him with stones .... in the court of the house of the Lord." According to my bible this happened around B.C.878.
    Now in the book of Zechariah 1:1 it says "came the word of the Lord unto Zechariah, the son of Berechiah. And this was around B.C. 520

    OK, now I get that these are two different men living at different times. My question is about in Mat. when it says it was Zec. son of Barachias who was killed in the temple. What's up with that?

    Lisa
     
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  3. dalynnrmc

    dalynnrmc New Member

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    Yes, it is referencing the 2 Chronicles story. If you'll read the Matthew text, where Jesus is talking, He is condemning the pharisees for their hypocrasy. They claim that if they lived in the time of their forefathers, they'd not have killed the prophets of those times.

    Jesus tells them that they are hypocrites and because of what they are saying, he will send them prophets in their own time. Some of them they will kill and crucify and some of them they will flog in the temples. He says that when they do this, all the blood their forefathers shed - including Zechariah the priest whose story is in 2 Chron 2:7-21 - will be on their hands as well.

    So, because they are acting like they have no sin and that they are free of their fathers' sins, Jesus is telling them that they are liars and hypocrites and is saying that they will commit those same sins and fall to the sins of the forefathers which they are condeming in false righteousness.


    Make sense? That what you were asking?

    Thanks for the mini-lesson! :)
     
  4. TeacherMom

    TeacherMom New Member

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    Are you asking thier names? Because I have found that a lot of the people in the bible have two names because it was one thing in Greek and one in Hebrew, also the names really meant something, like Simon the Tanner, and such, so if the person changed, as Naomi changed her name to MARA for a while because she was bitter over her loss, it could be the person's namewas changed for a while.
    To know for sure you would need to check what the meanings of the names are.. a lot of times it tells you right in the margin or bottom of your Bible page.
     
  5. Lisa

    Lisa New Member

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    Thanks ladies :) I guess I should have been more clear. What I'm confused about is Jesus said that Zac. son of Barachias was killed in the temple, but in 2 Chron. it says it was Zac. son of Jehoiada. Now the prophet Zac. was the son of Berechiah, but these were two different men living around 300 years apart.
    Maybe I'm confusing myself because the names (Barachias & Berechiah) are so similar, like when Jesus says Zacharias but in 2 Chron. it's Zachariah. Is that clear as mud?
    Maybe you're right TM. It was just odd to me that those names are so similiar and Barachias and Jehoiada are so not.
    Thanks again!

    Lisa
     
  6. TeacherMom

    TeacherMom New Member

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    Lisa I will ask my husband he will have a good answer.. look for it later this weekend or Monday?
     
  7. dalynnrmc

    dalynnrmc New Member

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    When I looked it up, I used the Thompson Concordance in my Bible, and they have them listed as the same. Yes, it may just be the difference in Hebrew and Greek... or Aramaic. ;)
     
    Last edited: Mar 23, 2008
  8. Lisa

    Lisa New Member

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    OK... thanks again!

    I know this really doesn't matter in the greater scheme of things, I just noticed it and thought 'hmm... that's odd' :)

    Lisa
     

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